Trick or Treat…. or Regret

Probability; Difficulty: easy

candy
Photo by Sebbi Strauch on Unsplash

Can You Hand Out All The Candy?

This week’s Riddler Classic is a relatively easy Stochastic Optimization question. The Classic reproduced:

For Halloween this year, you have purchased 150 pieces of candy. However, you’re not sure how many trick-or-treaters will visit you. Based on previous years, it could be anywhere from 50 to 150 (inclusive), with each number being equally likely.

As the trick-or-treaters arrive, you can decide to give each of them one, two or three candies. You want to avoid running out of candy, but you also want to avoid having any candy left over. Let X represent the number of trick-or-treaters who won’t get candy (if you do run out) or the number of leftover pieces (if you don’t run out).

This year, the day before Halloween, you come up with a strategy to minimize the expected value of X. What is this minimum expected value?

*spoiler alert*  solution and answer follow below

Solution

We are, in effect, asked to minimize our expected regret \(X\) which can be caused by candyless trick or treaters (call this \(X_1\) ), or leftover candy \(X_2\).  

We don’t know the number of kids that will come knocking beforehand—only the distribution of the number of kids. So we have to evaluate how any strategy performs against 101 equally likely possibilities (when we could end up with anywhere between 50 and 150 trick or treaters). Each possibility has a probability \(p = \displaystyle \frac{1}{101} \)

Let us plan to have our last piece(s) of candy be handed out to kid number \(N\).

Kids \(N+1\) to 150 will not get any candy. We will possibly disappoint 1,2,3…., OR at most \(150-N\) kids, each with probability \(p\).  Hence \(X_1\) the expected regret from running out of candy too early is:

\begin{align*}
X_1 &= p\left [ 1 \ + \ 2 \ + \ 3\ + \ … \ +\ (150-N) \ \right ] \\ \\
&= p \left [ \frac{(150 – N)(1 + 150 – N)}{2} \right ] \quad \textit{(sum of first 150-N integers)} \\ \\
&= \frac{p}{2} \left [ (150 – N)(151 – N) \right ]
\end{align*} 

Now consider instances when fewer than \(N\) kids show up: i.e. 50, 51, 52….., or \(N-1\) kids show up, each instance having a probability \(p\) . Let us also assume that as part of our strategy we plan to give out \(c_x\) pieces to kid number \(x\) where each \( c_x\) is 1,2, or 3 and \(x\) is between 50 and \(N-1\). 

Our leftover candy regret \(X_2 \) is now:

\begin{align*}
X_2 &= p\left [(c_N) \ + \ (c_N + c_{N-1}) \ + \ … \ + \ (c_N + c_{N-1} + … + c_{51} ) \right ]
\end{align*}

It should be obvious that no matter what \(N\) we pick, it’s best to handout exactly one candy to each kid after the first 50 to minimize \(X_2\),  i.e. each \(c_x\) is 1.  Consequently \(X_2\) can now be written as:

\begin{align*}
X_2 &= p\left [1 \ + \ 2 \ + \ … \ + \ (N – 50 ) \right ] \\ \\
&= p\left [ \frac{(N-50)(1 + N-50)}{2} \right ]  \quad \textit{(sum of first N – 50 integers)} \\ \\
&= \frac{p}{2}\left [(N-50)(N-49) \right ]
\end{align*}

Our total regret \(X\) is then the sum of \(X_1\) and \(X_2\):

\begin{align*}
X &= X_1 + X_2 \\ \\
&= \frac{p}{2}\left [(150 – N)(151 – N) \ + \ (N-50)(N-49) \right ] \\ \\
&= \frac{p}{2}\left [ 2N^2 \ – \ 400N \ + \ 25100 \right ]
\end{align*}

Intuitively, the symmetry of the situation with leftover candy and disappointed kids counting the same, tells us that the optimum value of \(N\) has to be such that we have equal likelihood of running out of candy as we do of running out of trick or treaters. i.e. \(N = 100\).

This can be seen by differentiating \(X\) w.r.t. \(N\) (treating N as continuous) and setting to zero (and verifying \(X”\) is positive):

\begin{align*}
X’ &= \frac{p}{2}\left [ 4N – 400 \right ] \\ \\
& \textit{ N = 100 is an extremum and a minimum since…} \\ \\
X” &= \frac{p}{2} . 4 \ = 2p \ > \ 0
\end{align*}

If we plan to run out of candy at kid #100 and also plan to give 1 each to number 51 through number 100, we will need to give away 100 candies to the first 50 trick or treaters.

Hence our optimal strategy is to plan to run out of candy at kid 100 by giving away 100 to the first 50 (say by handing out 2 each to the first 50 trick or treaters) and 1 each thereafter. The expected regret \(X\) = 25.25%  i.e. on average we will either have a little over 25 pieces of candy left over or disappoint a little over 25 kids. 

Optimal number of kids to plan to give out candy to
Optimal number of kids to plan to give out candy to (Click to expand)

Extra Credit

While the stated problem assumes that one piece of candy left over causes the same regret as a disappointed trick or treater, it’s more realistic to believe that we feel worse at disappointing a child vs. having leftover candy to feast on. A simple way to model this is to assume that a disappointed child causes us \(k\) times as much regret as a left over piece of candy i.e. 1 trick or treater turned away is equivalent to \(k\) pieces candy leftover.

It’s straightforward to apply the above method to arrive at the optimum \(N \)as a function of \(k\).

\begin{align*}
N &= \frac{99+301k}{2(1+k)}
\end{align*}

The resulting plot of the optimal \(N\) shows you will plan to serve more and more kids as you increase the relative regret of turning someone away vs. having leftover candy.

Optimum number of Trick or Treaters to plan for
Optimal number of kids to plan to plan for when regret from disappointed kids is larger than from leftover candy (Click to expand)
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2 thoughts on “Trick or Treat…. or Regret”

  1. “It should be obvious that no matter what 𝑁 we pick, it’s best to handout exactly one candy to each kid after the first 50 to minimize 𝑋2, i.e. each 𝑐𝑥 is 1”: I did not understand how we can make this reasoning… N depends of the strategy (e.g. if I give three candies to each kid then N = 50 for sure), and appears in X1 too. How is it obvious that you have to give out one candy to each kid after the first 50, when this choice also impacts X1? Thanks for the nice problem!

    1. Yes, N is part of the strategy definition: it’s the number of the kid we hand out the last piece of candy.To answer your question on why one candy is optimum after kid 50:
      Id we do plan to give out candy after kid 50 up to kid N, we run the risk of having candy left over. The more candy we plan to give out between kid 51 and kid N, the larger the left over candy risk. Consequently, it is optimal to give out just one candy from kid 51 to kid N. This is seen mathematically in the formula for \(X_2\), where all the \(c_x\) being one minimizes \(X_2\).
      Hope this clarifies. Thanks reading this post and for the comment.

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